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\(\ \Large f(\theta)=ln(cos\theta) ??\)

ln(x) its derivative is
(1/x)d/dx(x)

do the same with cosx

So use the Chain Rule?

hmm not so let me draw for u.

|dw:1353048585263:dw|

So: |dw:1353048624893:dw| Or do I insert ln(cosx)?

So use the chain rule.

no just cos x

Yes. Nubeer said no but his drawing said yes. That d/dx is taking another derivative of just cosx.

Oh okay, that's what I was thinking! Thanks for the help guys!

yeah my bad.. sorry.