anonymous
  • anonymous
If A(x) = B(x)Q(x) then R(x) =
Mathematics
  • Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
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SOLVED
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jamiebookeater
  • jamiebookeater
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hartnn
  • hartnn
0 ?
anonymous
  • anonymous
I'm with hartnn. 0 seems the only logical answer here.
anonymous
  • anonymous
okay, lets be clear, i have an exam after tomorrow, and i have literally no idea about this 0.0 how did you get to this answer? i really need help!

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hartnn
  • hartnn
A(x) = B(x)Q(x) here, Q(x) is quotient polynomial when A(x) is divided by B(x)
anonymous
  • anonymous
A R(x) term doesn't appear in the equation, so it must be zero.
hartnn
  • hartnn
generally, when dividing 2 polynomials, we have A(x) = B(x)Q(x) +R(x)
anonymous
  • anonymous
Just like if you write 2x^2-5x in the form ax^2+bx+c, c=0.
hartnn
  • hartnn
here R(x) is not present, hence 0
anonymous
  • anonymous
Ahh, okay! Thank you guyss sooooo much :D
anonymous
  • anonymous
lol, i don't know to whom to give the medal, so i just fanned you guys :P thank you really :)
hartnn
  • hartnn
thanks and welcome ^_^

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