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need_help!

  • 2 years ago

If A(x) = B(x)Q(x) then R(x) =

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  1. hartnn
    • 2 years ago
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    0 ?

  2. CliffSedge
    • 2 years ago
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    I'm with hartnn. 0 seems the only logical answer here.

  3. need_help!
    • 2 years ago
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    okay, lets be clear, i have an exam after tomorrow, and i have literally no idea about this 0.0 how did you get to this answer? i really need help!

  4. hartnn
    • 2 years ago
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    A(x) = B(x)Q(x) here, Q(x) is quotient polynomial when A(x) is divided by B(x)

  5. CliffSedge
    • 2 years ago
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    A R(x) term doesn't appear in the equation, so it must be zero.

  6. hartnn
    • 2 years ago
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    generally, when dividing 2 polynomials, we have A(x) = B(x)Q(x) +R(x)

  7. CliffSedge
    • 2 years ago
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    Just like if you write 2x^2-5x in the form ax^2+bx+c, c=0.

  8. hartnn
    • 2 years ago
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    here R(x) is not present, hence 0

  9. need_help!
    • 2 years ago
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    Ahh, okay! Thank you guyss sooooo much :D

  10. need_help!
    • 2 years ago
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    lol, i don't know to whom to give the medal, so i just fanned you guys :P thank you really :)

  11. hartnn
    • 2 years ago
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    thanks and welcome ^_^

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