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If A(x) = B(x)Q(x) then R(x) =

Mathematics
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0 ?
I'm with hartnn. 0 seems the only logical answer here.
okay, lets be clear, i have an exam after tomorrow, and i have literally no idea about this 0.0 how did you get to this answer? i really need help!

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Other answers:

A(x) = B(x)Q(x) here, Q(x) is quotient polynomial when A(x) is divided by B(x)
A R(x) term doesn't appear in the equation, so it must be zero.
generally, when dividing 2 polynomials, we have A(x) = B(x)Q(x) +R(x)
Just like if you write 2x^2-5x in the form ax^2+bx+c, c=0.
here R(x) is not present, hence 0
Ahh, okay! Thank you guyss sooooo much :D
lol, i don't know to whom to give the medal, so i just fanned you guys :P thank you really :)
thanks and welcome ^_^

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