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huda.bachtiar

  • 3 years ago

I still don't understand why the solution for this diff equation is like this dy/(1-y)^2=1/(1-y) is there any explanation for this solution???thank you in advance

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  1. Silent_Sorrow
    • 3 years ago
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    \[\int\limits_{ }^{ }(\frac{ 1 }{ (1-y)^{2} })dy = \int\limits_{ }^{ }((1-y)^{-2})dy\] Just integrate it with a negative power, so when you increase the power by 1 it will go to -1 then divide by the new power so -(1-y)^-1 which equals -1/(1-y)

  2. huda.bachtiar
    • 3 years ago
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    thank you for your consideration, exactly we have the same integration result but I thin we got negative in the right side and for the task in the right side is possitive. would it be still the same meaning fo this sign?

  3. cruzll
    • 3 years ago
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    im only suggesting partial fractions..

  4. TimSmit
    • 3 years ago
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    Using the substitution rule you should find that a -1 multiplication follows from the denominator (1-y).

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