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I still don't understand why the solution for this diff equation is like this dy/(1-y)^2=1/(1-y) is there any explanation for this solution???thank you in advance

MIT 18.03SC Differential Equations
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\[\int\limits_{ }^{ }(\frac{ 1 }{ (1-y)^{2} })dy = \int\limits_{ }^{ }((1-y)^{-2})dy\] Just integrate it with a negative power, so when you increase the power by 1 it will go to -1 then divide by the new power so -(1-y)^-1 which equals -1/(1-y)
thank you for your consideration, exactly we have the same integration result but I thin we got negative in the right side and for the task in the right side is possitive. would it be still the same meaning fo this sign?
im only suggesting partial fractions..

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Using the substitution rule you should find that a -1 multiplication follows from the denominator (1-y).

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