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LolWolfBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
0, because it's a constant.
 one year ago

LolWolfBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
Why do you think it'd be \(2\pi\)? Explain how you got to the conclusion.
 one year ago

tripkeBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
I am working on this problem right now dealing with Area. This is what it looks like: \[c^2\div2\pi \] and the answer books says the derivative is C/2pi
 one year ago

LolWolfBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
That's an entirely different problem. You actually have a variable, whose derivative is \(2C\), multiplying that by \(\frac{1}{4\pi}\) gives you: \[ \frac{2C}{4\pi}=\frac{C}{2\pi} \]. So, to answer your original question, yes: \[ \frac{d}{dC}4\pi=0 \]BUT: \[ \frac{d}{dC}\frac{C^2}{4\pi}=\frac{2C}{4\pi}=\frac{C}{2\pi} \]Which is different.
 one year ago

jatinbansalhotBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
always remember that the derivative of constant function is 0 ( zero ) .. 4pi is constant function...
 one year ago
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