anonymous
  • anonymous
The system Shown ( the spring is without tension) travels towards the wall and has an elastic collision . The maximum Compression of the spring is ?
Physics
  • Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
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SOLVED
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katieb
  • katieb
I got my questions answered at brainly.com in under 10 minutes. Go to brainly.com now for free help!
anonymous
  • anonymous
|dw:1353427046355:dw|
anonymous
  • anonymous
@experimentX @siddhantsharan
experimentX
  • experimentX
1/2 mv^2 = 1/2 kx^2

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More answers

Vincent-Lyon.Fr
  • Vincent-Lyon.Fr
Why did you close this question?
anonymous
  • anonymous
@Vincent-Lyon.Fr
anonymous
  • anonymous
@shubhamsrg
shubhamsrg
  • shubhamsrg
for maximum compression..whole kinetic energy is transferred to spring energy...that helps ?
shubhamsrg
  • shubhamsrg
and in such case,,effective mass = m1 m2 / (m1 + m2) am i helping ?
shubhamsrg
  • shubhamsrg
i mean are you getting ?
anonymous
  • anonymous
wat is effective mass
shubhamsrg
  • shubhamsrg
2 masses are connected to a spring on 2 ends..say m1 and m2.. then the effective mass is m1 m2/ (m1 + m2)
anonymous
  • anonymous
ok..)
anonymous
  • anonymous
Wait....I mean....I did nt get...wat is effective mass shuld nt it be m1 + m2
shubhamsrg
  • shubhamsrg
effective mass or can be also called reduced mass of the system.. never heard of it ?
anonymous
  • anonymous
No..)
anonymous
  • anonymous
So.... 1/2 k x^2 = 1/2 effective mass * v^2
anonymous
  • anonymous
right?
shubhamsrg
  • shubhamsrg
seems right..
shubhamsrg
  • shubhamsrg
well reduced mass is no big deal..has a simple derivation.. you wanna know ?
shubhamsrg
  • shubhamsrg
there isnt much need for the derivation for you to know since you're JEE aspirant..but still i can tell if you want..
anonymous
  • anonymous
Yes..i am interested in it
shubhamsrg
  • shubhamsrg
kk..newton's 3rd law states that F1 = -F2 right ? both taken in vector form.. F1 will be one acting on 1st body,,F2 on second..
anonymous
  • anonymous
ok...
shubhamsrg
  • shubhamsrg
all expressions are in vector form below : m1 a1 = - m2 a2 =>a1 = (-m2/m1) a2 now relative acceleration between the bodies a = a2 - a1 = a2 (1 + m2/m1) = m2 a2 ( m1 + m2)/(m1 m2) following ?
shubhamsrg
  • shubhamsrg
??
shubhamsrg
  • shubhamsrg
tell me if not getting anything ? we are not done yet with the thing..
anonymous
  • anonymous
Yup....i can follow u..)
anonymous
  • anonymous
Tell me a Scenario where we will use Effective Mass
shubhamsrg
  • shubhamsrg
right here!!
anonymous
  • anonymous
Another..Eg
shubhamsrg
  • shubhamsrg
now..m1m2 / (m1+ m2) = M (reduced or effective mass) so we have F2/M = a or F2 = Ma so what do you conclude ?
shubhamsrg
  • shubhamsrg
see,,any 2 body system can be converted to 1 body system with this effective mass... force acting between them will also act between this one body system..
anonymous
  • anonymous
Nw..i get it...)...thxx....)
shubhamsrg
  • shubhamsrg
you sure?
anonymous
  • anonymous
Yes.
shubhamsrg
  • shubhamsrg
hmm,,whats the conclusion you can draw then?

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