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Yahoo!

  • 2 years ago

The system Shown ( the spring is without tension) travels towards the wall and has an elastic collision . The maximum Compression of the spring is ?

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  1. Yahoo!
    • 2 years ago
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    |dw:1353427046355:dw|

  2. Yahoo!
    • 2 years ago
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    @experimentX @siddhantsharan

  3. experimentX
    • 2 years ago
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    1/2 mv^2 = 1/2 kx^2

  4. Vincent-Lyon.Fr
    • 2 years ago
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    Why did you close this question?

  5. Yahoo!
    • 2 years ago
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    @Vincent-Lyon.Fr

  6. Yahoo!
    • 2 years ago
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    @shubhamsrg

  7. shubhamsrg
    • 2 years ago
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    for maximum compression..whole kinetic energy is transferred to spring energy...that helps ?

  8. shubhamsrg
    • 2 years ago
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    and in such case,,effective mass = m1 m2 / (m1 + m2) am i helping ?

  9. shubhamsrg
    • 2 years ago
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    i mean are you getting ?

  10. Yahoo!
    • 2 years ago
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    wat is effective mass

  11. shubhamsrg
    • 2 years ago
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    2 masses are connected to a spring on 2 ends..say m1 and m2.. then the effective mass is m1 m2/ (m1 + m2)

  12. Yahoo!
    • 2 years ago
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    ok..)

  13. Yahoo!
    • 2 years ago
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    Wait....I mean....I did nt get...wat is effective mass shuld nt it be m1 + m2

  14. shubhamsrg
    • 2 years ago
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    effective mass or can be also called reduced mass of the system.. never heard of it ?

  15. Yahoo!
    • 2 years ago
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    No..)

  16. Yahoo!
    • 2 years ago
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    So.... 1/2 k x^2 = 1/2 effective mass * v^2

  17. Yahoo!
    • 2 years ago
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    right?

  18. shubhamsrg
    • 2 years ago
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    seems right..

  19. shubhamsrg
    • 2 years ago
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    well reduced mass is no big deal..has a simple derivation.. you wanna know ?

  20. shubhamsrg
    • 2 years ago
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    there isnt much need for the derivation for you to know since you're JEE aspirant..but still i can tell if you want..

  21. Yahoo!
    • 2 years ago
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    Yes..i am interested in it

  22. shubhamsrg
    • 2 years ago
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    kk..newton's 3rd law states that F1 = -F2 right ? both taken in vector form.. F1 will be one acting on 1st body,,F2 on second..

  23. Yahoo!
    • 2 years ago
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    ok...

  24. shubhamsrg
    • 2 years ago
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    all expressions are in vector form below : m1 a1 = - m2 a2 =>a1 = (-m2/m1) a2 now relative acceleration between the bodies a = a2 - a1 = a2 (1 + m2/m1) = m2 a2 ( m1 + m2)/(m1 m2) following ?

  25. shubhamsrg
    • 2 years ago
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    ??

  26. shubhamsrg
    • 2 years ago
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    tell me if not getting anything ? we are not done yet with the thing..

  27. Yahoo!
    • 2 years ago
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    Yup....i can follow u..)

  28. Yahoo!
    • 2 years ago
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    Tell me a Scenario where we will use Effective Mass

  29. shubhamsrg
    • 2 years ago
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    right here!!

  30. Yahoo!
    • 2 years ago
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    Another..Eg

  31. shubhamsrg
    • 2 years ago
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    now..m1m2 / (m1+ m2) = M (reduced or effective mass) so we have F2/M = a or F2 = Ma so what do you conclude ?

  32. shubhamsrg
    • 2 years ago
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    see,,any 2 body system can be converted to 1 body system with this effective mass... force acting between them will also act between this one body system..

  33. Yahoo!
    • 2 years ago
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    Nw..i get it...)...thxx....)

  34. shubhamsrg
    • 2 years ago
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    you sure?

  35. Yahoo!
    • 2 years ago
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    Yes.

  36. shubhamsrg
    • 2 years ago
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    hmm,,whats the conclusion you can draw then?

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