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I a making an ex: and see this: tan x = 1 <=>  tan x (pi/4) Why is the  before tan?
 one year ago
 one year ago
I a making an ex: and see this: tan x = 1 <=>  tan x (pi/4) Why is the  before tan?
 one year ago
 one year ago

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RonnyDeKoningBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
 tan x (pi/4) why is is not tan (pi/4)
 one year ago

ZeHanzBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
It could just as well be tan (pi/4), because tan is an uneven function: f(x) = f(x) for all x in the domain of f. I guess the reason tan(pi/4) is used because you are supposed to know by heart that tan(pi/4) = 1. So we have: tan(x) = 1 <=> tan(x) = 1 <=> tan(x) = 1 <=> tan(x) = tan(pi/4 + k*pi) <=> x = pi/4 + k*pi <=> x = pi/4  k*pi which is the same as x = pi/4 + k*pi, because k is any integer. Hope this helps... ZeHanz
 one year ago
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