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henpen
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0(1) How is the Lorentz force law derived? (2) For the motor effect, is a fair explanation that the moving electrons experience a force downwards due to a magnetic force, and push the wire down with them due to EM repulsion between them and the metal atoms? (3) For EM induction, why is there a dB/dt term if there is not in the Lorentz force law? I am confused intuitively about it; I understand what happens, but not why above the level of rote.

masumanwar
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0induced emf was first suggested by Michel Faraday and by applying circuit for close loop using inductor and applying dc or ac voltage we can measure induced emf

shamim
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0lorentz force law is \[F=qE+q(v \times B)\]

shamim
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0here q= charge F=force and its a vector E=electric field and its a vector v=velocity of charge q and its a vector B= magnetic field and its vector

shamim
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0if in any place both electric field E and magnetic field B present then this lorentz force law will b applied

shamim
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0Lorentz force law can b writen as\[F=q(E+v \times B)\]

shamim
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0ur question 2 is not clear to me

shamim
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0now i wanna talk abt ur question 3

henpen
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0That's not the derivation, it's just a statement of the law.
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