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henpenBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
(1) How is the Lorentz force law derived? (2) For the motor effect, is a fair explanation that the moving electrons experience a force downwards due to a magnetic force, and push the wire down with them due to EM repulsion between them and the metal atoms? (3) For EM induction, why is there a dB/dt term if there is not in the Lorentz force law? I am confused intuitively about it; I understand what happens, but not why above the level of rote.
 one year ago

masumanwarBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
induced emf was first suggested by Michel Faraday and by applying circuit for close loop using inductor and applying dc or ac voltage we can measure induced emf
 one year ago

shamimBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
lorentz force law is \[F=qE+q(v \times B)\]
 one year ago

shamimBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
here q= charge F=force and its a vector E=electric field and its a vector v=velocity of charge q and its a vector B= magnetic field and its vector
 one year ago

shamimBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
if in any place both electric field E and magnetic field B present then this lorentz force law will b applied
 one year ago

shamimBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
Lorentz force law can b writen as\[F=q(E+v \times B)\]
 one year ago

shamimBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
ur question 2 is not clear to me
 one year ago

shamimBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
now i wanna talk abt ur question 3
 one year ago

henpenBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
That's not the derivation, it's just a statement of the law.
 one year ago
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