Limit question - It makes sense to me why the limit as x tends to 4 of 1/(x-4) is undefined. What I don't understand is why the same limit of 1/(x-4)^2 tends to infinity. Could someone explain this.

I got my questions answered at brainly.com in under 10 minutes. Go to brainly.com now for free help!

Abundantly clear now. Thank you.

Looking for something else?

Not the answer you are looking for? Search for more explanations.

## More answers

Looking for something else?

Not the answer you are looking for? Search for more explanations.