Here's the question you clicked on:

55 members online
  • 0 replying
  • 0 viewing


  • 3 years ago

We know that tan(0)=0 and tan(pi/4)=1. Must there be an x, 0 < x < pi/4, with sec^2(x)=4/pi? Justify using either Mean Value Theorem or Intermediate Value Theorem.

  • This Question is Closed

    Not the answer you are looking for?
    Search for more explanations.

    • Attachments:

Ask your own question

Sign Up
Find more explanations on OpenStudy
Privacy Policy