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ganeshie8

  • 2 years ago

how does a two flop synchronizer work ? i get the metastability part of it, but im not getting clue how we make sure we capturing the actual incoming async data, and not just some metastable stabled high/low value ?

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  1. ganeshie8
    • 2 years ago
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  2. praveenroyg
    • 2 years ago
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    you need to understand the Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF) concept to understand the synchronization part. The most common way to tolerate metastability is to add one or more successive synchronizing flip-flops to the synchronizer. This approach allows for an entire clock period (except for the setup time of the second flip-flop) for metastable events in the first synchronizing flip-flop to resolve themselves. this approach can not guarantee that metastability cannot pass through the synchronizer; they simply reduce the probability to practical levels. The metastability occurrences can be predicted by using the mean time between failures . C1 and C2 are constants that depend on the technology used to build the flip-flop; tMET is the duration of the metastable output; and fclk and fdata are the frequencies of the synchronous clock and the asynchronous input, respectively. please look ate mtbf.bmp for formula. Designers can use special metastable hardened flops for increasing the MTBF. For example, in sync_Fig1.bmp, a synchronizer flop is used following the signal DB. So, instead of the metastable signal DB being used in the function downstream as in sync_Fig2.bmp, the stable signal DB2 is used in the logic downstream.

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