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At the end of lecture 21, Professor Aroux says that in a velocity field, the curl is twice the angular velocity of rotation component of the field. But when it comes to force field, he simply says the curl measures the torque exerted. Should the curl be equal to twice the torque or not and why? Thanks

MIT 18.02 Multivariable Calculus, Fall 2007
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i am also in doubt

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