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the reason is because kl is bigger than jk
well yeah...but whats the mathy reason?
i have no clue
bummer..:( ive been trying to find out for like 2 hours! but i have nooo idea..:(
i understand ur pain
what are the possible answers
idk..i have to come up wioth one..by myself..:/
o that sucks
this is easy let me get my head around it
definitions help me out one sec xD
i would if i knew what they could be..:/
2: Transitive Property of Congruency
now for number 4 xD
KM=KM it's the same shared side so it'll be equal given angle JMK> angle KML we know that side opposite to larger angle is larger than the side opposite to the smaller angle so JK which is opposite to angle JMK is larger than KL which is opposite to angle KML => JK>KL -Ash.
aaaaaaand that dosent tell me what it would be...
idk number 4 I need to look at it more
i need this answer too.... i've been sitting here for like an hour trying to do it hahaha
lol looks like we gotta wait...and wait...and wait..lol
2 is reflection.
4 is AAS theorem i guess.
let me check
yey! thank you soooooooo much!!:D
i think that the answer might be because jm and kl are not parallel and kl is shorter.. but i learned this two years ago so i dont really remember..
mmm ok thank you for ur help anyway:)
sorry :( i never understood why they made us do that kind of stuff :P
haha i REALLY dont think im gonna use proofs when i get a job..lol
same here :)