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oo its ok..the working just like that AbhimanyuPudi ?

the negative sign in the answer indicates that the area is formed below the x-axis

forexample, integral(cosx) from x=0 to pi = 0 ..-ve and +ve areas cancel..

the result will be different if u use integration (0,2) with i said above :)

i know, i am saying if we integrate directly from 0 to 2, we will get correct ans.

why will you treat negative area separately ? area can be -ve during integration!

ok2 which one i should follow?

btw, for A1 i take int (f(x)) dx [0,1]
and A2 i take int(-f(x)) dx [1,2]

so if ask you integral(cos x) from 0 to pi? ans according to you should be 2 right ?

Yes, A = 2 unit square!

but Abhimanyu's job not 2, but 2/3 :)

i just wanted to confirm :
http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=integral+%28cosx%29+from+0+to+pi

@shubhamsrg , is it possible the area be 0 :)

http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=integral+%28cosx%29+from+x%3D+pi%2F2+to+3pi%2F2

and also, it'll be 0 when you add together the +ve and -ve areas!

@shubhamsrg I'm not a fan of worf, honestly it's just a simple calculation!

i have maybe understood the concept sir,,sorry for the confusion..

ok thanks a lot for you guys for help me... =)

very welcome ... ::)