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sauravshakya

  • 2 years ago

What is the exact value of this

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  1. sauravshakya
    • 2 years ago
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    |dw:1356270940251:dw|

  2. hartnn
    • 2 years ago
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    \(\huge \frac{\pi^2}{6}\)

  3. sauravshakya
    • 2 years ago
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    how?

  4. hartnn
    • 2 years ago
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    which method do u want? i know the one using Fourier Transform...

  5. sauravshakya
    • 2 years ago
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    Any easy method.... I havent learn Fourier Transform

  6. KorcanKanoglu
    • 2 years ago
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    btw, you can write your question with the equation buttom, then you can copy the script and paste it to the question box, it will emerge as an equation :)

  7. sauravshakya
    • 2 years ago
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    U can do it using Fourier Transform .... I will try to catch it

  8. hartnn
    • 2 years ago
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    Fourier Series expansion for f(x) in [0,2pi] \(f(x)=a_0/2+\sum \limits_{n=1}^\infty a_n\cos nx+\sum \limits_{n=1}^\infty b_n\sin nx\) \[a_0=(1/\pi)\int \limits_0^{2\pi}f(x)dx\] \[a_n=(1/\pi)\int \limits_0^{2\pi}f(x)\cos nxdx\] \[a_0=(1/\pi)\int \limits_0^{2\pi}f(x)\sin nxdx\]

  9. hartnn
    • 2 years ago
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    here, use \(f(x)=(\frac{\pi-x}{2})^2\)

  10. hartnn
    • 2 years ago
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    and find Fourier series Expansion of f(x) u should get, bn=0 an=1/n^2

  11. hartnn
    • 2 years ago
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    sorry, the last one is bn \[b_n=(1/\pi)\int \limits_0^{2\pi}f(x)\sin nxdx\]

  12. hartnn
    • 2 years ago
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    this really is the longer way to do it...

  13. sauravshakya
    • 2 years ago
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    Thanx for the reply will see it later

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