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sauravshakyaBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
dw:1356270940251:dw
 one year ago

hartnnBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
\(\huge \frac{\pi^2}{6}\)
 one year ago

hartnnBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
which method do u want? i know the one using Fourier Transform...
 one year ago

sauravshakyaBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
Any easy method.... I havent learn Fourier Transform
 one year ago

KorcanKanogluBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
btw, you can write your question with the equation buttom, then you can copy the script and paste it to the question box, it will emerge as an equation :)
 one year ago

sauravshakyaBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
U can do it using Fourier Transform .... I will try to catch it
 one year ago

hartnnBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
Fourier Series expansion for f(x) in [0,2pi] \(f(x)=a_0/2+\sum \limits_{n=1}^\infty a_n\cos nx+\sum \limits_{n=1}^\infty b_n\sin nx\) \[a_0=(1/\pi)\int \limits_0^{2\pi}f(x)dx\] \[a_n=(1/\pi)\int \limits_0^{2\pi}f(x)\cos nxdx\] \[a_0=(1/\pi)\int \limits_0^{2\pi}f(x)\sin nxdx\]
 one year ago

hartnnBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
here, use \(f(x)=(\frac{\pix}{2})^2\)
 one year ago

hartnnBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
and find Fourier series Expansion of f(x) u should get, bn=0 an=1/n^2
 one year ago

hartnnBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
sorry, the last one is bn \[b_n=(1/\pi)\int \limits_0^{2\pi}f(x)\sin nxdx\]
 one year ago

hartnnBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
this really is the longer way to do it...
 one year ago

sauravshakyaBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
Thanx for the reply will see it later
 one year ago
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