A community for students.
Here's the question you clicked on:
 0 viewing
wiah
 3 years ago
Prove that if f is measurable, then {x in Ac=f(x)} is measurable for each real number c. Show that the converse is false.
wiah
 3 years ago
Prove that if f is measurable, then {x in Ac=f(x)} is measurable for each real number c. Show that the converse is false.

This Question is Closed

Raja99
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0can u elaborate the question!

wiah
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0if f(x) is measurable on a set A, then A(f(x)=c) is measurable for each c.how to prove this?

Raja99
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0take a example and prove

Raja99
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0u need have some functions for this

wiah
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0do u know any link regarding measurable functions?i need to know the proof of all the properties of measurable functions.

Edutopia
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Measurable_function Inverse image "Preimage" redirects here. For the cryptographic attack on hash functions, see preimage attack. Let f be a function from X to Y. The preimage or inverse image of a set B ⊆ Y under f is the subset of X defined by The inverse image of a singleton, denoted by f −1[{y}] or by f −1[y], is also called the fiber over y or the level set of y. The set of all the fibers over the elements of Y is a family of sets indexed by Y. Again, if there is no risk of confusion, we may denote f −1[B] by f −1(B), and think of f −1 as a function from the power set of Y to the power set of X. The notation f −1 should not be confused with that for inverse function. The two coincide only if f is a bijection.

Edutopia
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0http://www.math.ucdavis.edu/~hunter/measure_theory/measure_notes_ch3.pdf

watchmath
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0If f is measurable, then for any c, A_c={x  f<c} is measurable and so is the complemant \(A_c^C\). It follows that {x  f(x) =c} =A\ (A_c U A_c^C) is also measurable.
Ask your own question
Sign UpFind more explanations on OpenStudy
Your question is ready. Sign up for free to start getting answers.
spraguer
(Moderator)
5
→ View Detailed Profile
is replying to Can someone tell me what button the professor is hitting...
23
 Teamwork 19 Teammate
 Problem Solving 19 Hero
 Engagement 19 Mad Hatter
 You have blocked this person.
 ✔ You're a fan Checking fan status...
Thanks for being so helpful in mathematics. If you are getting quality help, make sure you spread the word about OpenStudy.