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S0fw0N
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0if every (x) has 1 (y) then (y) is a function of (x)

S0fw0N
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0now if every (x) has 2 (y) s then (y) is not a function of (x) (x) is a function of (y)

S0fw0N
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0did u get it @larrissia

seidi.yamauti
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0S0fw0N is waiting for you to give the real answer. So he/she just explained how it works!

seidi.yamauti
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0You need to see if the formula is injective.

seidi.yamauti
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0(if you plot the function, there must be just one y for each x, but there can be two or more x for an y value)

dpaInc
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1in plain english, for any ONE x value, will you have only ONE y value?

jefftheloveableguy
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0Yes for example if at (2,4). The point (2,7) would not make it a function because it does not pass the vertical line test.
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