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ksaimouliBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
http://online.math.uh.edu/apcalculus/exams/images/AP_AB_version1__91.gif
 one year ago

tcarroll010Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
You can use L'Hopital's rule whereby you take the limit of the derivative of the numerator over the limit of the derivative of the denominator. All with respect to "t".
 one year ago

ksaimouliBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
yes i did that but stuck
 one year ago

tcarroll010Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
Are you able to calculate the derivative of the numerator and the derivative of the denominator? You got stuck? Ok, I'll help a little further.
 one year ago

ksaimouliBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
so \[\sec(\frac{ \pi }{ 4 })^2(\sec \frac{ \pi }{4 })^2\]
 one year ago

ksaimouliBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
do u know what is the answer it is 2
 one year ago

ksaimouliBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
but it is 2 i am sure
 one year ago

tcarroll010Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
The numerator goes to: sec^2 [(1/4)pi] as "t" goes to "0" So, yes, it goes to "2"
 one year ago

tcarroll010Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
Yes, definitely, "2" is the answer.
 one year ago

tcarroll010Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
The derivative of the numerator is: sec^2 [(1/4)pi + t] and that goes to: sec^2 [(1/4)pi] as "t" goes to "0" The derivative of the denominator is just "1" So, you deal with just: sec^2 [(1/4)pi] and that = 2
 one year ago

ksaimouliBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
what did u do with other half sec^2 [(1/4)pi + t] sec^2 [(1/4)pi )
 one year ago

tcarroll010Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
The other half is just a constant, so when you take the derivative of that, it disappears. That was where I made an initial mistake but I corrected that.
 one year ago

ksaimouliBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
chain rule does not apply for the first one
 one year ago

tcarroll010Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
Here's a graph of the function and you can see that the limit is "2".
 one year ago

tcarroll010Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
The chain actually does apply to the first term, but it doesn't matter, because the derivative of (pi)/4 + t is just "1", so you are multiplying that derivative by "1", so it doesn't become apparent.
 one year ago

tcarroll010Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
Thx for the recognition btw.
 one year ago

ksaimouliBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
for long conversation
 one year ago

tcarroll010Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
And you're welcome. Sorry I went off on a tangent (no pun intended) at the beginning.
 one year ago
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