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ksaimouli
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0http://online.math.uh.edu/apcalculus/exams/images/AP_AB_version1__91.gif

tcarroll010
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1You can use L'Hopital's rule whereby you take the limit of the derivative of the numerator over the limit of the derivative of the denominator. All with respect to "t".

ksaimouli
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0yes i did that but stuck

tcarroll010
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1Are you able to calculate the derivative of the numerator and the derivative of the denominator? You got stuck? Ok, I'll help a little further.

ksaimouli
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0so \[\sec(\frac{ \pi }{ 4 })^2(\sec \frac{ \pi }{4 })^2\]

ksaimouli
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0do u know what is the answer it is 2

ksaimouli
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0but it is 2 i am sure

tcarroll010
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1The numerator goes to: sec^2 [(1/4)pi] as "t" goes to "0" So, yes, it goes to "2"

tcarroll010
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1Yes, definitely, "2" is the answer.

tcarroll010
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1The derivative of the numerator is: sec^2 [(1/4)pi + t] and that goes to: sec^2 [(1/4)pi] as "t" goes to "0" The derivative of the denominator is just "1" So, you deal with just: sec^2 [(1/4)pi] and that = 2

ksaimouli
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0what did u do with other half sec^2 [(1/4)pi + t] sec^2 [(1/4)pi )

tcarroll010
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1The other half is just a constant, so when you take the derivative of that, it disappears. That was where I made an initial mistake but I corrected that.

ksaimouli
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0chain rule does not apply for the first one

tcarroll010
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1Here's a graph of the function and you can see that the limit is "2".

tcarroll010
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1The chain actually does apply to the first term, but it doesn't matter, because the derivative of (pi)/4 + t is just "1", so you are multiplying that derivative by "1", so it doesn't become apparent.

tcarroll010
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1Thx for the recognition btw.

ksaimouli
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0for long conversation

tcarroll010
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1And you're welcome. Sorry I went off on a tangent (no pun intended) at the beginning.
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