geerky42
  • geerky42
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Physics
  • Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
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schrodinger
  • schrodinger
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geerky42
  • geerky42
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anonymous
  • anonymous
ok. Let the mass of the particle be m. Net force acting on a particle can be written as : \[F = \frac{ dP }{ dt }\] where P is the momentum of the particle. Therefore, dP = Fdt \[\int\limits_{Po}^{P} dP = \int\limits_{0}^{t}Fdt\] Therfore, \[P2 - P1 = \int\limits_{0}^{t}Fdt\] Which means, change in momentum = area under the Force vs. Time graph. From the given graph, area under the graph = \[(\frac{ 1 }{ 2 } * 3 * 8) + (3*8) + (\frac{ 1 }{ 2 }*3*8) = 48Ns\] initial momentum = mv = m*(-4.4) = -4.4m kgm/s Let final velocity be V. Therefore, final momentum = mV Therefore change in momentum = mV - (-4.4m) = m(V+4.4) kgm/s equating, m(V+4.4) = 48 If we know the mass of the particle, we can calculate its final velocity using this equation. If mass is not known, we cannot determine the final velocity
geerky42
  • geerky42
Oh, mass is known, It was reminded in previous question. Thanks.

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