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Ok ok lemme explain it a tiny bit further, because it will help us on the next problem anyway.

thanks!

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OH. i'm slow. :/ haha i getnow :)

|dw:1358301319768:dw|actuall,y no wait.

Yes you do, my bad :)

The derivative of 1/4*1^4 will still give you 0 though right? :D So no big deal.

ohh yes. thank you :) now let's go on to the next one :)

oh... ok. i will try to do this one by myself. :)

kk

yea.. uh nevermind. haha i'm stuck at the firt step. :(

Lemme show you the answer real quick.. this one is a little hard to swallow.

brbs :O

ok. but i think i need to see the process :/ this one is hard to understand ...

\[\large =\frac{d}{dx}\left[\arctan(\sin x)-\arctan 3\right]\]

Taking the derivative gives us,\[\large \frac{1}{1+(\sin x)^2}(\sin x)'+0\]

i have a question. what is the integration of cost/t?

so, ,, for F'(x), we could just substitute x for t?

ok, so i understand that part now :) but how would you find F'(1)? do you just replace x with 1? :)