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hera474

  • 3 years ago

Does the squeeze theorem always work out to zero?

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  1. anonymous
    • 3 years ago
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    no

  2. anonymous
    • 3 years ago
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    if \(\lim_{x\to a}f(x)=5\) and \(\lim_{x\to a}g(x)=5\) and if \(f(x)\leq h(x)\leq g(x)\) then \(\lim_{x\to a}h(x)=5\)

  3. anonymous
    • 3 years ago
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    although you would get the impression that it is always zero, because that is how it is most frequently used

  4. hera474
    • 3 years ago
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    Cool thanks

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