Here's the question you clicked on:
hera474
Does the squeeze theorem always work out to zero?
if \(\lim_{x\to a}f(x)=5\) and \(\lim_{x\to a}g(x)=5\) and if \(f(x)\leq h(x)\leq g(x)\) then \(\lim_{x\to a}h(x)=5\)
although you would get the impression that it is always zero, because that is how it is most frequently used