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\[\int_0^1\left(\frac{1}{\ln x} + \frac{1}{1-x}\right)^2 \mathrm{dx}\] @Mimi_x3

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have fun mimi =]
could work backwards in figuring out what f(x) is
rather than complete the integral itself

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Other answers:

lol, looks like those improper integrals?
using what we know if of this \[\int f(x)dx=F(x)\]
@Outkast3r09 i dont think that would work
can not be done by elementary terms..^2
and this is why i hardly ever answer parth questions
This is not my question; I found it from somewhere else. :-)
well, i will try..will take a while tho lol
I don't even get what the solution says. Hehe :-D
Only legit method I see is using Simpson's approximation formula.
seriously i don't know ... but since you say it, then my guess must be correct :D
Hoho ;-)

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