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Sunshine447

Geometry

  • one year ago
  • one year ago

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  1. Sunshine447
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    • one year ago
  2. Sunshine447
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    @phi

    • one year ago
  3. phi
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    Do you understand what the first statement says?

    • one year ago
  4. Sunshine447
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    the theorem or the proof part?

    • one year ago
  5. phi
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    I was asking about the first statement of the proof. But now that you mention it, do you understand what the theorem is saying ?

    • one year ago
  6. Sunshine447
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    it's saying that if the diagonals split the shape in the center, then its a quadrilateral

    • one year ago
  7. phi
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    It says if you have a quadrilateral (fancy word for a shape with 4 sides) and you know its diagonals "bisect each other" (in other words, the point where the diagonals meet is exactly in the center of both diagonals) then you have a parallelogram (very special: the opposite sides are parallel to each other) now Do you understand what the first statement of the proof says?

    • one year ago
  8. Sunshine447
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    angle 1 = angle 2 because they are vertical angles

    • one year ago
  9. phi
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    yes, and that is true. what about statement 2.

    • one year ago
  10. Sunshine447
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    1/2 of each digonal is congruent to its other half because it bisects them

    • one year ago
  11. phi
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    what does that mean?

    • one year ago
  12. Sunshine447
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    What do you mean?

    • one year ago
  13. phi
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    Just wondering if you know that means if you divide something into 2 equal parts (exactly in half) then the two parts are equal. ok now statement 3

    • one year ago
  14. Sunshine447
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    since 2 sides are equal (congruent) and 1 angle is equal, the two triangles are congruent

    • one year ago
  15. phi
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    yes, SAS is short for side-angle-side statement 4. this means, go through the same steps for the 2 other triangles. it will be true. now statement 5

    • one year ago
  16. Sunshine447
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    the trianngles are congruent based on the transitive property

    • one year ago
  17. phi
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    it does not say that.

    • one year ago
  18. Sunshine447
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    the givin angles are congruent by the transitive property?

    • one year ago
  19. phi
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    statement 5 says, angle ABD = BDC by the transitive property I would wonder why we just proved 2 triangles are congruent ? If the angles ABD and BDC are = by the transitive property (what is that ?) then why did we prove triangles are congruent. on the other hand, if the angles are part of congruent triangles, we could say the angles are equal if they are corresponding parts of congruent triangles.

    • one year ago
  20. Sunshine447
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    okay...? so is that the incorrect statement?

    • one year ago
  21. phi
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    yes, it's not correct. She should have said the angles are equal because they are corresponding parts of congruent triangles (often abbreviated CPCT)

    • one year ago
  22. Sunshine447
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    so its choice B?

    • one year ago
  23. phi
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    yes.

    • one year ago
  24. Sunshine447
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    thanks! I think I'm finally starting to understand this proof stuff

    • one year ago
  25. phi
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    It's tricky, but good to learn how to think logically, so you don't mess up and put on your shoes before you put on your socks...

    • one year ago
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