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Sunshine447
 2 years ago
Geometry
Sunshine447
 2 years ago
Geometry

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phi
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1Do you understand what the first statement says?

Sunshine447
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1the theorem or the proof part?

phi
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1I was asking about the first statement of the proof. But now that you mention it, do you understand what the theorem is saying ?

Sunshine447
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1it's saying that if the diagonals split the shape in the center, then its a quadrilateral

phi
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1It says if you have a quadrilateral (fancy word for a shape with 4 sides) and you know its diagonals "bisect each other" (in other words, the point where the diagonals meet is exactly in the center of both diagonals) then you have a parallelogram (very special: the opposite sides are parallel to each other) now Do you understand what the first statement of the proof says?

Sunshine447
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1angle 1 = angle 2 because they are vertical angles

phi
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1yes, and that is true. what about statement 2.

Sunshine447
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.11/2 of each digonal is congruent to its other half because it bisects them

phi
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1Just wondering if you know that means if you divide something into 2 equal parts (exactly in half) then the two parts are equal. ok now statement 3

Sunshine447
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1since 2 sides are equal (congruent) and 1 angle is equal, the two triangles are congruent

phi
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1yes, SAS is short for sideangleside statement 4. this means, go through the same steps for the 2 other triangles. it will be true. now statement 5

Sunshine447
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1the trianngles are congruent based on the transitive property

Sunshine447
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1the givin angles are congruent by the transitive property?

phi
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1statement 5 says, angle ABD = BDC by the transitive property I would wonder why we just proved 2 triangles are congruent ? If the angles ABD and BDC are = by the transitive property (what is that ?) then why did we prove triangles are congruent. on the other hand, if the angles are part of congruent triangles, we could say the angles are equal if they are corresponding parts of congruent triangles.

Sunshine447
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1okay...? so is that the incorrect statement?

phi
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1yes, it's not correct. She should have said the angles are equal because they are corresponding parts of congruent triangles (often abbreviated CPCT)

Sunshine447
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1thanks! I think I'm finally starting to understand this proof stuff

phi
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1It's tricky, but good to learn how to think logically, so you don't mess up and put on your shoes before you put on your socks...
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