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jerry0007

  • 3 years ago

f(x)=limit x approaches infinity (1/tanx) how it is equal to pi/2

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  1. NoelGreco
    • 3 years ago
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    You converted \[\tan ^{-1}x\] to 1/tanx You are actually looking for the limit of inverse tangent as x approaches infinity. pi/2 to be sure.

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