Here's the question you clicked on:

55 members online
  • 0 replying
  • 0 viewing


  • 3 years ago

f(x)=limit x approaches infinity (1/tanx) how it is equal to pi/2

  • This Question is Open
  1. NoelGreco
    • 3 years ago
    Best Response
    You've already chosen the best response.
    Medals 0

    You converted \[\tan ^{-1}x\] to 1/tanx You are actually looking for the limit of inverse tangent as x approaches infinity. pi/2 to be sure.

  2. Not the answer you are looking for?
    Search for more explanations.

    • Attachments:

Ask your own question

Sign Up
Find more explanations on OpenStudy
Privacy Policy