anonymous
  • anonymous
Is the inverse of a function, always a function?
Mathematics
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schrodinger
  • schrodinger
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ash2326
  • ash2326
Yes, if a function is invertible- it has to be a one to one So it's inverse would also have a one to one relation and consequently a function
anonymous
  • anonymous
iits an inverse cosign but yes it is a function
ash2326
  • ash2326
But there are exceptions sin x is a periodic function, it has a many to one relation. Its inverse doesn't exist But arcsin or\( \sin^{−1}x \) is defined with constraints on domain and range

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Mertsj
  • Mertsj
No. Not always. For example the parabola y = x^2 is a function but its inverse x=y^2 is not a function.

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