## PureSoul Group Title Is the inverse of a function, always a function? one year ago one year ago

1. ash2326 Group Title

Yes, if a function is invertible- it has to be a one to one So it's inverse would also have a one to one relation and consequently a function

2. star95 Group Title

iits an inverse cosign but yes it is a function

3. ash2326 Group Title

But there are exceptions sin x is a periodic function, it has a many to one relation. Its inverse doesn't exist But arcsin or$$\sin^{−1}x$$ is defined with constraints on domain and range

4. Mertsj Group Title

No. Not always. For example the parabola y = x^2 is a function but its inverse x=y^2 is not a function.