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ash2326
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0Yes, if a function is invertible it has to be a one to one So it's inverse would also have a one to one relation and consequently a function

star95
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0iits an inverse cosign but yes it is a function

ash2326
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0But there are exceptions sin x is a periodic function, it has a many to one relation. Its inverse doesn't exist But arcsin or\( \sin^{−1}x \) is defined with constraints on domain and range

Mertsj
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0No. Not always. For example the parabola y = x^2 is a function but its inverse x=y^2 is not a function.
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