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PureSoul

  • 2 years ago

Is the inverse of a function, always a function?

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  1. ash2326
    • 2 years ago
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    Yes, if a function is invertible- it has to be a one to one So it's inverse would also have a one to one relation and consequently a function

  2. star95
    • 2 years ago
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    iits an inverse cosign but yes it is a function

  3. ash2326
    • 2 years ago
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    But there are exceptions sin x is a periodic function, it has a many to one relation. Its inverse doesn't exist But arcsin or\( \sin^{−1}x \) is defined with constraints on domain and range

  4. Mertsj
    • 2 years ago
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    No. Not always. For example the parabola y = x^2 is a function but its inverse x=y^2 is not a function.

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