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ash2326Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
Yes, if a function is invertible it has to be a one to one So it's inverse would also have a one to one relation and consequently a function
 one year ago

star95Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
iits an inverse cosign but yes it is a function
 one year ago

ash2326Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
But there are exceptions sin x is a periodic function, it has a many to one relation. Its inverse doesn't exist But arcsin or\( \sin^{−1}x \) is defined with constraints on domain and range
 one year ago

MertsjBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
No. Not always. For example the parabola y = x^2 is a function but its inverse x=y^2 is not a function.
 one year ago
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