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SamuelAlden917
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1No. Example: √ 5 is an irrational expression in its simplest form. However, for expressions involving an irrational denominator like this: 3 ⁄ √ 5 you can rationalize the denominator like this: 3 ⁄ √ 5 = (3 ⁄ √ 5) • [(√ 5) ⁄ (√ 5) ] = (3√ 5) ⁄ 5 Note that it's still irrational ... you can't change that.

SamuelAlden917
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1@dmezzullo Yep.

SamuelAlden917
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1@dmezzullo I am trying to Answer questions.

SamuelAlden917
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1Hahahahahahahaha. @dmezzullo Its natural! HAhahaha

ihavemathquestions
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0@SamuelAlden917 Is it possible that the rational function and its simplified forms can be equivalent

SamuelAlden917
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1Any you are EXTREMELY attractive.

ihavemathquestions
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0for? that was so nice

SamuelAlden917
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1O OK. Want to chat?
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