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sritama

  • 3 years ago

A fair die is rolled (2n+1) times.The probability that the faces with even number show odd number of times is- a) (3n+1)/(4n+2) b) 3/4 c)2/3 d)1/2

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  1. wio
    • 3 years ago
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    The whole roll 2n+1 times, get k even numbered die is a binomial distribution but I wonder

  2. wio
    • 3 years ago
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    if the symmetry of the probability can't make this a bit easier.

  3. wio
    • 3 years ago
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    We can definitely use the fact that it is multiple choice though...

  4. wio
    • 3 years ago
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    If \(n=0\) then clearly getting an even face means you win, so the probability is \(1/2\).

  5. wio
    • 3 years ago
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    Which knocks out b and c

  6. sritama
    • 3 years ago
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    i am getting d as the answer , but the book is saying a.

  7. wio
    • 3 years ago
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    When \(n=1\). what is the probability?

  8. wio
    • 3 years ago
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    You have three rolls, if you roll 1 or 3 evens, you win

  9. sritama
    • 3 years ago
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    hm,yes

  10. wio
    • 3 years ago
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    oops, that doesn't actually matter, when \(n=1\) then a) is still 1/2

  11. wio
    • 3 years ago
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    They need to be different.

  12. wio
    • 3 years ago
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    n=2 gives 7/10 for a, but d is still 1/2 so.... 5 rolls, what is the probability of odd even rolls

  13. wio
    • 3 years ago
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    Weird... There is no explanation for a)?

  14. timo86m
    • 3 years ago
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    D i think

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