anonymous
  • anonymous
...Given f(x)= X ^2 and g(x)= 2^x a) the inverse of g is a function, but the inverse of f is no a function. Explain why this statement is true. b) Find g ^-1(f (3) ) to the nearest tenth please help! i really tried to do it but i can't find a similar problem in my notes :SS
Mathematics
  • Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
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SOLVED
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schrodinger
  • schrodinger
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anonymous
  • anonymous
HEYYYYY
anonymous
  • anonymous
Help plz
ZeHanz
  • ZeHanz
With a function, it works this way: you put in a number, do the math and out comes another number. With 2^x it is just like this. The reverse is also true: if you have some number that is the outcome of 2^x, there is always just one x with which you started. E.g: 2^3=8. If you work back from 8 you only get 2. With x^2 it is just a little different: you put in 2, out comes 4. No problem. But if 4 is an outcome, you have to choose between two numbers: it could that you put in 2, but it also could have been -2: (-2)^2 =4. x^2 has no inverse, because you do not have a unique origin of a number. Compare this with 2^x...

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anonymous
  • anonymous
okay thanks...
anonymous
  • anonymous
(:.. thanks a lot.
ZeHanz
  • ZeHanz
yw! Hope you understand now...
anonymous
  • anonymous
kind of...who cares i never really understood it..

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