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seiga

  • 3 years ago

...Given f(x)= X ^2 and g(x)= 2^x a) the inverse of g is a function, but the inverse of f is no a function. Explain why this statement is true. b) Find g ^-1(f (3) ) to the nearest tenth please help! i really tried to do it but i can't find a similar problem in my notes :SS

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  1. danya1
    • 3 years ago
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    HEYYYYY

  2. Ally123
    • 3 years ago
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    Help plz

  3. ZeHanz
    • 3 years ago
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    With a function, it works this way: you put in a number, do the math and out comes another number. With 2^x it is just like this. The reverse is also true: if you have some number that is the outcome of 2^x, there is always just one x with which you started. E.g: 2^3=8. If you work back from 8 you only get 2. With x^2 it is just a little different: you put in 2, out comes 4. No problem. But if 4 is an outcome, you have to choose between two numbers: it could that you put in 2, but it also could have been -2: (-2)^2 =4. x^2 has no inverse, because you do not have a unique origin of a number. Compare this with 2^x...

  4. seiga
    • 3 years ago
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    okay thanks...

  5. seiga
    • 3 years ago
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    (:.. thanks a lot.

  6. ZeHanz
    • 3 years ago
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    yw! Hope you understand now...

  7. seiga
    • 3 years ago
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    kind of...who cares i never really understood it..

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