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1+(1/4)+(1/9)+(1/16)+...............infinity =(pi)^2/6
How??
 one year ago
 one year ago
1+(1/4)+(1/9)+(1/16)+...............infinity =(pi)^2/6 How??
 one year ago
 one year ago

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gksriharshaBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
Use Geometric Progression to prove that
 one year ago

mujtabazarrarBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
this is not a geometric progression......
 one year ago

shubhamsrgBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.2
The proof of this is very ugly and complicated for many. Why don't you google over ?
 one year ago

mujtabazarrarBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
just give me an idea where i can find this proof in textbook......what series expansion is being used.......maclarian or tylor series of which functions...........
 one year ago

gksriharshaBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
In progressions chapter which ever textbook whichever series
 one year ago

shubhamsrgBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.2
here.This proof is good. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Basel_problem
 one year ago
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