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anonymous
 3 years ago
1+(1/4)+(1/9)+(1/16)+...............infinity =(pi)^2/6
How??
anonymous
 3 years ago
1+(1/4)+(1/9)+(1/16)+...............infinity =(pi)^2/6 How??

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anonymous
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0Use Geometric Progression to prove that

anonymous
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0this is not a geometric progression......

shubhamsrg
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.2The proof of this is very ugly and complicated for many. Why don't you google over ?

anonymous
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0just give me an idea where i can find this proof in textbook......what series expansion is being used.......maclarian or tylor series of which functions...........

anonymous
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0In progressions chapter which ever textbook whichever series

shubhamsrg
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.2here.This proof is good. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Basel_problem
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