Got Homework?
Connect with other students for help. It's a free community.
Here's the question you clicked on:
 0 viewing
mujtabazarrar
Group Title
1+(1/4)+(1/9)+(1/16)+...............infinity =(pi)^2/6
How??
 one year ago
 one year ago
mujtabazarrar Group Title
1+(1/4)+(1/9)+(1/16)+...............infinity =(pi)^2/6 How??
 one year ago
 one year ago

This Question is Open

gksriharsha Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
Use Geometric Progression to prove that
 one year ago

mujtabazarrar Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
this is not a geometric progression......
 one year ago

shubhamsrg Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.2
The proof of this is very ugly and complicated for many. Why don't you google over ?
 one year ago

mujtabazarrar Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
just give me an idea where i can find this proof in textbook......what series expansion is being used.......maclarian or tylor series of which functions...........
 one year ago

gksriharsha Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
In progressions chapter which ever textbook whichever series
 one year ago

shubhamsrg Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.2
here.This proof is good. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Basel_problem
 one year ago

mujtabazarrar Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
THanks
 one year ago
See more questions >>>
Your question is ready. Sign up for free to start getting answers.
spraguer
(Moderator)
5
→ View Detailed Profile
is replying to Can someone tell me what button the professor is hitting...
23
 Teamwork 19 Teammate
 Problem Solving 19 Hero
 Engagement 19 Mad Hatter
 You have blocked this person.
 ✔ You're a fan Checking fan status...
Thanks for being so helpful in mathematics. If you are getting quality help, make sure you spread the word about OpenStudy.