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mujtabazarrar

  • 2 years ago

1+(1/4)+(1/9)+(1/16)+...............infinity =(pi)^2/6 How??

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  1. gksriharsha
    • 2 years ago
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    Use Geometric Progression to prove that

  2. mujtabazarrar
    • 2 years ago
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    this is not a geometric progression......

  3. shubhamsrg
    • 2 years ago
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    The proof of this is very ugly and complicated for many. Why don't you google over ?

  4. mujtabazarrar
    • 2 years ago
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    just give me an idea where i can find this proof in textbook......what series expansion is being used.......maclarian or tylor series of which functions...........

  5. gksriharsha
    • 2 years ago
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    In progressions chapter which ever textbook whichever series

  6. shubhamsrg
    • 2 years ago
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    here.This proof is good. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Basel_problem

  7. mujtabazarrar
    • 2 years ago
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    THanks

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