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1+(1/4)+(1/9)+(1/16)+...............infinity =(pi)^2/6 How??

Mathematics
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Use Geometric Progression to prove that
this is not a geometric progression......
The proof of this is very ugly and complicated for many. Why don't you google over ?

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just give me an idea where i can find this proof in textbook......what series expansion is being used.......maclarian or tylor series of which functions...........
In progressions chapter which ever textbook whichever series
here.This proof is good. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Basel_problem
THanks

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