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genius91

  • 3 years ago

If d(x,y) <= d(x,z)+d(z,y) is 1+d(x,y) <= 2+d(x,z)+d(z,y) true?

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  1. experimentX
    • 3 years ago
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    yes of course ... just add 1 on both sides ... and add another 1 on rhs

  2. genius91
    • 3 years ago
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    Thanx. I was not sure of the answer i have.

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