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Here's the question you clicked on:
genius91
If d(x,y) <= d(x,z)+d(z,y) is 1+d(x,y) <= 2+d(x,z)+d(z,y) true?
yes of course ... just add 1 on both sides ... and add another 1 on rhs
Thanx. I was not sure of the answer i have.
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