A community for students.
Here's the question you clicked on:
 0 viewing
anonymous
 3 years ago
you win a game if you roll a die and get a 2 or 5 you play 60 times what is the probability you will win the game at least 40 times
i know that is a cumulative probability
i know that 60 *.333=19.98
i know that the answer for winning 15 out of the 60 times because the book includes some answers and that answer is 20
i know when i do it on a binomial calculator that is at stattrek.com it gave me the cumulative as 1.32
also when i did it by the number of successes which in this case is 40 so i did 40*.333=13.32
so i am still confused as to which probability is the right one
anonymous
 3 years ago
you win a game if you roll a die and get a 2 or 5 you play 60 times what is the probability you will win the game at least 40 times i know that is a cumulative probability i know that 60 *.333=19.98 i know that the answer for winning 15 out of the 60 times because the book includes some answers and that answer is 20 i know when i do it on a binomial calculator that is at stattrek.com it gave me the cumulative as 1.32 also when i did it by the number of successes which in this case is 40 so i did 40*.333=13.32 so i am still confused as to which probability is the right one

This Question is Open

anonymous
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0i got my .333 when i did (1/6)+(1/6)

anonymous
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0can someone tell me if i got the right probability in there somewhere

dumbcow
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1this is a binomial distribution problem http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Binomial_distribution#Probability_mass_function

anonymous
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0thank you dumbcow! I appreciate the information

kropot72
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0The probability of rolling a 2 or 5 = 1/6 + 1/6 = 1/3 This can be solved by using the normal approximation of the binomial distribution with the mean and the standard deviation calculated as follows: \[mean=np=60\times \frac{1}{3}=20\] \[standard\ deviation=\sqrt{np(1p)}=\sqrt{20\times \frac{2}{3}}=3.65\] The cumulative probability of the number of wins being 39 or fewer is found from a standard normal distribution table. The zscore for X = 39 is\[z=\frac{3920}{3.65}=5.2\] reference to a standard normal distribution table shows that the probability of the number of wins being 39 or fewer is 1.00. Therefore there is zero probability that you will win the game at least 40 times.

anonymous
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0thank you kropot72this is really helpful

kropot72
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0You're welcome :) The normal approximation of the binomial distribution is very useful when the number of trials becomes large.
Ask your own question
Sign UpFind more explanations on OpenStudy
Your question is ready. Sign up for free to start getting answers.
spraguer
(Moderator)
5
→ View Detailed Profile
is replying to Can someone tell me what button the professor is hitting...
23
 Teamwork 19 Teammate
 Problem Solving 19 Hero
 Engagement 19 Mad Hatter
 You have blocked this person.
 ✔ You're a fan Checking fan status...
Thanks for being so helpful in mathematics. If you are getting quality help, make sure you spread the word about OpenStudy.