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anonymous
 3 years ago
can some one help on this please?? ill award and fan !
show whether Rolle's theorem can be applied to f(x) if it can determine any values of c in the interval [o,2 pi] for which f'(c)=0
f(x)=cos x
anonymous
 3 years ago
can some one help on this please?? ill award and fan ! show whether Rolle's theorem can be applied to f(x) if it can determine any values of c in the interval [o,2 pi] for which f'(c)=0 f(x)=cos x

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anonymous
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0you'll need to specify f(x) = ???

anonymous
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0oh sprry @Kanwar245 and @dpaInc

anonymous
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0do you remember the conditions needed to apply Rolle's Theorem?

anonymous
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0conditions: 1 f(x) has to be continuous on [0, 2pi] .... is it? 2 f(x) has to be differentiable on (0, 2pi) .... is it? 3 f(0) = f(2pi) .... is it?

anonymous
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0@dpaInc are you asking ??

anonymous
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0yes... i'm asking... if all those conditions are met, then u can use Rolle's Theorem.

anonymous
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0To satisfy Rolle's theroem, f(0)=f(2pi), f(x) is continuous in [0, 2pi], and is differentiable in (0, 2pi). So, to show whether Rolle's theorem can be applied to f(x)=cos(x), show cos(0)=cos(2pi). And cos(x) is continuous and differentiable...
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