anonymous
  • anonymous
can some one help on this please?? ill award and fan ! show whether Rolle's theorem can be applied to f(x) if it can determine any values of c in the interval [o,2 pi] for which f'(c)=0 f(x)=cos x
Mathematics
katieb
  • katieb
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anonymous
  • anonymous
whats f(x)
anonymous
  • anonymous
you'll need to specify f(x) = ???
anonymous
  • anonymous
oh sprry @Kanwar245 and @dpaInc

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anonymous
  • anonymous
f(x)=cos x
anonymous
  • anonymous
sorry *
anonymous
  • anonymous
do you remember the conditions needed to apply Rolle's Theorem?
anonymous
  • anonymous
conditions: 1- f(x) has to be continuous on [0, 2pi] .... is it? 2- f(x) has to be differentiable on (0, 2pi) .... is it? 3- f(0) = f(2pi) .... is it?
anonymous
  • anonymous
@dpaInc are you asking ??
anonymous
  • anonymous
yes... i'm asking... if all those conditions are met, then u can use Rolle's Theorem.
anonymous
  • anonymous
To satisfy Rolle's theroem, f(0)=f(2pi), f(x) is continuous in [0, 2pi], and is differentiable in (0, 2pi). So, to show whether Rolle's theorem can be applied to f(x)=cos(x), show cos(0)=cos(2pi). And cos(x) is continuous and differentiable...

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