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 one year ago
can some one help on this please?? ill award and fan !
show whether Rolle's theorem can be applied to f(x) if it can determine any values of c in the interval [o,2 pi] for which f'(c)=0
f(x)=cos x
 one year ago
can some one help on this please?? ill award and fan ! show whether Rolle's theorem can be applied to f(x) if it can determine any values of c in the interval [o,2 pi] for which f'(c)=0 f(x)=cos x

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dpaInc
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0you'll need to specify f(x) = ???

Ephilo
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0oh sprry @Kanwar245 and @dpaInc

dpaInc
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0do you remember the conditions needed to apply Rolle's Theorem?

dpaInc
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0conditions: 1 f(x) has to be continuous on [0, 2pi] .... is it? 2 f(x) has to be differentiable on (0, 2pi) .... is it? 3 f(0) = f(2pi) .... is it?

Ephilo
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0@dpaInc are you asking ??

dpaInc
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0yes... i'm asking... if all those conditions are met, then u can use Rolle's Theorem.

JeanetteBaker
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0To satisfy Rolle's theroem, f(0)=f(2pi), f(x) is continuous in [0, 2pi], and is differentiable in (0, 2pi). So, to show whether Rolle's theorem can be applied to f(x)=cos(x), show cos(0)=cos(2pi). And cos(x) is continuous and differentiable...
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