anonymous
  • anonymous
can some one help on this please?? ill award and fan ! show whether Rolle's theorem can be applied to f(x) if it can determine any values of c in the interval [o,2 pi] for which f'(c)=0 f(x)=cos x
Mathematics
  • Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
Hey! We 've verified this expert answer for you, click below to unlock the details :)
SOLVED
At vero eos et accusamus et iusto odio dignissimos ducimus qui blanditiis praesentium voluptatum deleniti atque corrupti quos dolores et quas molestias excepturi sint occaecati cupiditate non provident, similique sunt in culpa qui officia deserunt mollitia animi, id est laborum et dolorum fuga. Et harum quidem rerum facilis est et expedita distinctio. Nam libero tempore, cum soluta nobis est eligendi optio cumque nihil impedit quo minus id quod maxime placeat facere possimus, omnis voluptas assumenda est, omnis dolor repellendus. Itaque earum rerum hic tenetur a sapiente delectus, ut aut reiciendis voluptatibus maiores alias consequatur aut perferendis doloribus asperiores repellat.
schrodinger
  • schrodinger
I got my questions answered at brainly.com in under 10 minutes. Go to brainly.com now for free help!
anonymous
  • anonymous
whats f(x)
anonymous
  • anonymous
you'll need to specify f(x) = ???
anonymous
  • anonymous
oh sprry @Kanwar245 and @dpaInc

Looking for something else?

Not the answer you are looking for? Search for more explanations.

More answers

anonymous
  • anonymous
f(x)=cos x
anonymous
  • anonymous
sorry *
anonymous
  • anonymous
do you remember the conditions needed to apply Rolle's Theorem?
anonymous
  • anonymous
conditions: 1- f(x) has to be continuous on [0, 2pi] .... is it? 2- f(x) has to be differentiable on (0, 2pi) .... is it? 3- f(0) = f(2pi) .... is it?
anonymous
  • anonymous
@dpaInc are you asking ??
anonymous
  • anonymous
yes... i'm asking... if all those conditions are met, then u can use Rolle's Theorem.
anonymous
  • anonymous
To satisfy Rolle's theroem, f(0)=f(2pi), f(x) is continuous in [0, 2pi], and is differentiable in (0, 2pi). So, to show whether Rolle's theorem can be applied to f(x)=cos(x), show cos(0)=cos(2pi). And cos(x) is continuous and differentiable...

Looking for something else?

Not the answer you are looking for? Search for more explanations.