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Ephilo

  • 3 years ago

can some one help on this please?? ill award and fan ! show whether Rolle's theorem can be applied to f(x) if it can determine any values of c in the interval [o,2 pi] for which f'(c)=0 f(x)=cos x

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  1. Kanwar245
    • 3 years ago
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    whats f(x)

  2. dpaInc
    • 3 years ago
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    you'll need to specify f(x) = ???

  3. Ephilo
    • 3 years ago
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    oh sprry @Kanwar245 and @dpaInc

  4. Ephilo
    • 3 years ago
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    f(x)=cos x

  5. Ephilo
    • 3 years ago
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    sorry *

  6. dpaInc
    • 3 years ago
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    do you remember the conditions needed to apply Rolle's Theorem?

  7. dpaInc
    • 3 years ago
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    conditions: 1- f(x) has to be continuous on [0, 2pi] .... is it? 2- f(x) has to be differentiable on (0, 2pi) .... is it? 3- f(0) = f(2pi) .... is it?

  8. Ephilo
    • 3 years ago
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    @dpaInc are you asking ??

  9. dpaInc
    • 3 years ago
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    yes... i'm asking... if all those conditions are met, then u can use Rolle's Theorem.

  10. JeanetteBaker
    • 3 years ago
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    To satisfy Rolle's theroem, f(0)=f(2pi), f(x) is continuous in [0, 2pi], and is differentiable in (0, 2pi). So, to show whether Rolle's theorem can be applied to f(x)=cos(x), show cos(0)=cos(2pi). And cos(x) is continuous and differentiable...

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