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can some one help on this please?? ill award and fan !
show whether Rolle's theorem can be applied to f(x) if it can determine any values of c in the interval [o,2 pi] for which f'(c)=0
f(x)=cos x
 one year ago
 one year ago
can some one help on this please?? ill award and fan ! show whether Rolle's theorem can be applied to f(x) if it can determine any values of c in the interval [o,2 pi] for which f'(c)=0 f(x)=cos x
 one year ago
 one year ago

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dpaIncBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
you'll need to specify f(x) = ???
 one year ago

EphiloBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
oh sprry @Kanwar245 and @dpaInc
 one year ago

dpaIncBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
do you remember the conditions needed to apply Rolle's Theorem?
 one year ago

dpaIncBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
conditions: 1 f(x) has to be continuous on [0, 2pi] .... is it? 2 f(x) has to be differentiable on (0, 2pi) .... is it? 3 f(0) = f(2pi) .... is it?
 one year ago

EphiloBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
@dpaInc are you asking ??
 one year ago

dpaIncBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
yes... i'm asking... if all those conditions are met, then u can use Rolle's Theorem.
 one year ago

JeanetteBakerBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
To satisfy Rolle's theroem, f(0)=f(2pi), f(x) is continuous in [0, 2pi], and is differentiable in (0, 2pi). So, to show whether Rolle's theorem can be applied to f(x)=cos(x), show cos(0)=cos(2pi). And cos(x) is continuous and differentiable...
 one year ago
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