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Ephilo

can some one help on this please?? ill award and fan ! show whether Rolle's theorem can be applied to f(x) if it can determine any values of c in the interval [o,2 pi] for which f'(c)=0 f(x)=cos x

  • one year ago
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  1. Kanwar245
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    whats f(x)

    • one year ago
  2. dpaInc
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    you'll need to specify f(x) = ???

    • one year ago
  3. Ephilo
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    oh sprry @Kanwar245 and @dpaInc

    • one year ago
  4. Ephilo
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    f(x)=cos x

    • one year ago
  5. Ephilo
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    sorry *

    • one year ago
  6. dpaInc
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    do you remember the conditions needed to apply Rolle's Theorem?

    • one year ago
  7. dpaInc
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    conditions: 1- f(x) has to be continuous on [0, 2pi] .... is it? 2- f(x) has to be differentiable on (0, 2pi) .... is it? 3- f(0) = f(2pi) .... is it?

    • one year ago
  8. Ephilo
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    @dpaInc are you asking ??

    • one year ago
  9. dpaInc
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    yes... i'm asking... if all those conditions are met, then u can use Rolle's Theorem.

    • one year ago
  10. JeanetteBaker
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    To satisfy Rolle's theroem, f(0)=f(2pi), f(x) is continuous in [0, 2pi], and is differentiable in (0, 2pi). So, to show whether Rolle's theorem can be applied to f(x)=cos(x), show cos(0)=cos(2pi). And cos(x) is continuous and differentiable...

    • one year ago
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