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johnny0929

  • one year ago

Show that the laplace transform of \(f(ct)\) is \[\frac{1}{c}F(\frac{s}{c})\]

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  1. johnny0929
    • one year ago
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    @modphysnoob help?

  2. johnny0929
    • one year ago
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    anyone please?

  3. modphysnoob
    • one year ago
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    well, do you want worked example or why that is true?

  4. johnny0929
    • one year ago
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    i want to know how to prove it

  5. modphysnoob
    • one year ago
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    well, remember this derivative in time domain is multiplication by s in laplace domain

  6. johnny0929
    • one year ago
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    ok i think i can do it myself... i substitute ct with u, so -st becomes \(-u\frac{s}{c}\) and then i take the integral of it

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