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bintang

  • 3 years ago

is there anyone know how to proof the definition of inner product can be like this : <p,q>= (integral from 1 to -1) p(x) q(x) dx ?

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  1. Alchemista
    • 3 years ago
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    Do you know the inner product axioms? http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inner_product_space#Definition

  2. Alchemista
    • 3 years ago
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    You need to demonstrate that the definition in your question satisfies each of the axioms.

  3. bintang
    • 3 years ago
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    how to demonstrate it?

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