## sark123 2 years ago In the bet on a “single number” at roulette, there is chance 1/38 of winning. The bet pays 35 to 1; you can take this to mean that if you win the bet, your net gain is \$35, and if you lose the bet then you lose \$1 (that is, your net gain is -\$1). Suppose you bet repeatedly on a single number; assume that the bets are independent of each other. Find the expected value of your net gain from 38 bets.

1. bubblemath122

Expected value = (1/38) *35 + (37/38)(-1) = -1/19 which is around -\$0.05 now multiply that by 38 so -1/19 * 38 = -2

2. bubblemath122

you will expect a net loss of 2 dollars on 38 bets

3. sark123

thumbs up for you man !

4. pandu

In the bet on a “single number” at roulette, there is chance 1/38 of winning. The bet pays 35 to 1; you can take this to mean that if you win the bet, your net gain is \$35, and if you lose the bet then you lose \$1 (that is, your net gain is -\$1). You don’t need to know any more about roulette to solve this problem, but the description given above is what would happen if you were to bet \$1 on a single number at a Las Vegas roulette table. Suppose you bet repeatedly on a single number; assume that the bets are independent of each other. Find the expected value of your net gain from 38 bets