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bubbles4044

  • 2 years ago

(sec(x) +1)/tan(x)=((tan(x))/(sec(x) - 1)

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  1. Loser66
    • 2 years ago
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    prove? if so, time LHS by \[\frac{(secx-1)}{(secx-1)}\] some more steps to get the RHS

  2. jishan
    • 2 years ago
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    |dw:1368956043189:dw|

  3. Loser66
    • 2 years ago
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    @jishan cannot prove on that way. if so, you assume that the equation is true. And if it is true, why do we prove? have to go from LHS to RHS or vice versa. We can start from both sides independently to each other and end at the same result.

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