anonymous
  • anonymous
explain how you would find the exact value of 3 over the square root of 8 @primeralph
Mathematics
  • Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
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SOLVED
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chestercat
  • chestercat
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zzr0ck3r
  • zzr0ck3r
3/sqrt(8) multiply top and bottom by srt(8) 3*sqrt(8)/8 = 3*sqrt(4)*sqrt(2)/8 = 3*4*sqrt(2) / 8 = 12*sqrt(2)/8 = 3*sqrt(2)/2
primeralph
  • primeralph
|dw:1370026284214:dw|
anonymous
  • anonymous
Thanks to both!(:

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More answers

zzr0ck3r
  • zzr0ck3r
np
primeralph
  • primeralph
you can not find an exact value because sqrt(2) has no exact value
zzr0ck3r
  • zzr0ck3r
sqrt(2) is the exact value of sqrt(2)
zzr0ck3r
  • zzr0ck3r
3*sqrt(2)/3 is the eact value
primeralph
  • primeralph
@zzr0ck3r in rational form or numerical? The question does not specify.
zzr0ck3r
  • zzr0ck3r
exact....
zzr0ck3r
  • zzr0ck3r
if you can write it with out approximate it is exact
primeralph
  • primeralph
notations are just notations.
zzr0ck3r
  • zzr0ck3r
nothing about notation, exact is exact.... pi is exact for pi 2/6 is exact for 2/6 66.66666 is not exact for 2/6
zzr0ck3r
  • zzr0ck3r
this question was given in exact form, the question I think should have been rationalize the denominator. Because we are supposed to give everything as exact unless told otherwise.
zzr0ck3r
  • zzr0ck3r
3/sqrt(8) is the exact form of 3/sqrt(8)
zzr0ck3r
  • zzr0ck3r
there are other exact forms such as the one we showed.
primeralph
  • primeralph
pi was assigned a notation, but that does not make it exact. If we assign notations to every irrational number, does that allow us classify them all as exact? For example zeta(2) would be irrational until one classifies it as pi^2 /6
zzr0ck3r
  • zzr0ck3r
i.e 500/sqrt(4) + 45 "an" exact form of 295
zzr0ck3r
  • zzr0ck3r
yes, pi is exact. because we know there is no end
primeralph
  • primeralph
what is your definition of exactness?
zzr0ck3r
  • zzr0ck3r
pi is defined as a ratio of circumference to diameter, that is exact. just because it is not rational does not mean its not exact. The definition of pi has nothing to do with rational vs irrational
primeralph
  • primeralph
I'm asking for YOUR definition of exactness, not one constrained to a single constant.
zzr0ck3r
  • zzr0ck3r
you can google these things...
primeralph
  • primeralph
Yours, not google's.
zzr0ck3r
  • zzr0ck3r
if a is in an equivalence relation with a then a is the exact form of a
zzr0ck3r
  • zzr0ck3r
there are many equivalence relations besides = so we must define what you mean by eact, but this is not about our definitions, it is the definition of exact on the real line
zzr0ck3r
  • zzr0ck3r
i.e I might call black blue but black is black.
zzr0ck3r
  • zzr0ck3r
ask your teacher why the exact form of pi is pi.
zzr0ck3r
  • zzr0ck3r
Or post it as a question and someone else might give you a better explanation because I don't think you are hearing me:)
primeralph
  • primeralph
What I'm saying is, your definition might be true to what you're implying, no argument, but not to what I'm saying. No need to get cocky. You certainly seem to have a limited scope of math. Anyways, I'll leave you to clear out your self.
zzr0ck3r
  • zzr0ck3r
we write 2 as a number because we define 2 two be something that exibits twoness, do you understand what I'm saying here? We say that 2 is isomorphic to something with twoness. I e they act the same.
zzr0ck3r
  • zzr0ck3r
lol why am I cocky? why am I limited. I am trying to explain something you asked.....and you say I am not wrong.....but ok. have a good day:)
zzr0ck3r
  • zzr0ck3r
don't call someone names then erase them, grow up.

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