anonymous
  • anonymous
in binomial distribution, p+q=?
Mathematics
  • Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
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schrodinger
  • schrodinger
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anonymous
  • anonymous
$$p+q=1$$
anonymous
  • anonymous
thaaaanks!
anonymous
  • anonymous
Think about it reasonably; in a binomial distribution, we're considering Bernoulli trials, where we either have a success (with probability \(p\)) or we have a failure (with probability \(q\)). With only two options, it makes sense it's either one or the other. Ask yourself what the probability of having a success OR a failure. Since these two events are mutually exclusive, we know we always have one or the other, we know this is true 100% of the time, and thus we know the probability is \(1\).

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anonymous
  • anonymous
Ask yourself, what is the probability of having a success OR a failure?
dan815
  • dan815
go ahead ask urself
dan815
  • dan815
hahahah

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