goformit100
  • goformit100
“The product of two consecutive positive integers is divisible by 2”. Is this statement true or false? Give reasons.
Mathematics
  • Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
Hey! We 've verified this expert answer for you, click below to unlock the details :)
SOLVED
At vero eos et accusamus et iusto odio dignissimos ducimus qui blanditiis praesentium voluptatum deleniti atque corrupti quos dolores et quas molestias excepturi sint occaecati cupiditate non provident, similique sunt in culpa qui officia deserunt mollitia animi, id est laborum et dolorum fuga. Et harum quidem rerum facilis est et expedita distinctio. Nam libero tempore, cum soluta nobis est eligendi optio cumque nihil impedit quo minus id quod maxime placeat facere possimus, omnis voluptas assumenda est, omnis dolor repellendus. Itaque earum rerum hic tenetur a sapiente delectus, ut aut reiciendis voluptatibus maiores alias consequatur aut perferendis doloribus asperiores repellat.
chestercat
  • chestercat
I got my questions answered at brainly.com in under 10 minutes. Go to brainly.com now for free help!
goformit100
  • goformit100
@genius12
anonymous
  • anonymous
2 consecutive positive integers means one integer must be even and the other must be odd all even numbers are divisible by 2 when you multiply the odd and even together, you can still divide out the 2 from the even number
anonymous
  • anonymous
False. 1*3 = 3 <- not even lol.

Looking for something else?

Not the answer you are looking for? Search for more explanations.

More answers

anonymous
  • anonymous
consecutive?
goformit100
  • goformit100
Ok..
mathslover
  • mathslover
True. There will be an even and odd, so of course their product will be divisible by 2.
anonymous
  • anonymous
Yes ok guys I think @goformit100 gets the idea here. we don't all need to crowd around the same question. move on to other questions.
mathslover
  • mathslover
Goformit, is it clear to you?
mathslover
  • mathslover
You can take cases here. Case 1 : a is even. a = 2q (using euclid's division algorithm, q is positive integer) \(\bf{\cfrac{a(a+1)}{2} = \cfrac{2q(a+1)}{2} = q(a+1)}\) , which is a positive integer. So, a(a+1) is divisible by 2. Case 2 : a + 1 is even \(\bf{\cfrac{a(a+1)}{2} = \cfrac{2q(a)}{2} = aq}\) which is also an integer So, a(a+1) is divisible by 2.
goformit100
  • goformit100
Thank you Users :)
mathslover
  • mathslover
You are welcome :)

Looking for something else?

Not the answer you are looking for? Search for more explanations.