This is for the single most important physics paper I have made when studying high school physics. Imagine two let's say cylindrical magnets. The magnetic field density of each magnet decreases as an inverse function of distance, but is it inverse SQUARE or inverse CUBE? Also as the size of the magnet increases (first assuming it is a magnetic point charge dipole), in what proportion does this inverse relation (for example 1/x^2) become less valid, and less valid so that x would have a larger or a smaller coefficient?
EDIT!: What I found was that as for this source: http://www.instructables.com/id/Evaluate-magnetic-field-variation-with-distance/ the magnetic field strength (not force between two magnets) decreases as a function of distance, but when the measuring gets closer to the magnet, the change for magnetic field strength becomes stronger for each added subsequent unit.
If the guy were to measure the change in increase in repulsion force between two magnets as an inverse function of distance, how would this compare?
Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
Hey! We 've verified this expert answer for you, click below to unlock the details :)
At vero eos et accusamus et iusto odio dignissimos ducimus qui blanditiis praesentium voluptatum deleniti atque corrupti quos dolores et quas molestias excepturi sint occaecati cupiditate non provident, similique sunt in culpa qui officia deserunt mollitia animi, id est laborum et dolorum fuga.
Et harum quidem rerum facilis est et expedita distinctio. Nam libero tempore, cum soluta nobis est eligendi optio cumque nihil impedit quo minus id quod maxime placeat facere possimus, omnis voluptas assumenda est, omnis dolor repellendus.
Itaque earum rerum hic tenetur a sapiente delectus, ut aut reiciendis voluptatibus maiores alias consequatur aut perferendis doloribus asperiores repellat.
I got my questions answered at brainly.com in under 10 minutes. Go to brainly.com now for free help!
Basically I’m doing a paper on how the force between two cylindrical magnets changes as a function of the distance between the two magnets. My experiment is to have two cylindrical magnets repelling each other in a vertically placed tube. By default the upper magnet is a certain distance from the lower magnet m2 but as I add identical masses y on top of each other the distance between the two magnets decreases. as F = ma -> a = F/m, and since acceleration must be 9,81m/s^2 for every total mass of upper magnet + added y-masses, I know the exact force that each of the magnets are experiencing.
My PROBLEM is that in order to criticize the validity of my experiment results (systematical and random error that are possible) in order to know how accurate my experiment was, I would have to have a formula that is the ABSOLUTE theoretical force between my specific two cylindrical magnets with their properties. Instead Ill have to use an approximation for force between two cylindrical magnets from the Wikipedia page for force between two magnets. The validity of this approximating formula for the force decreases or increases as I decrease the distance between the two magnets manually, by adding mass. I’m not sure how I should deal with this fact but for starters, I should discuss the basic relationship between two very small magnetic dipoles in terms of the magnetic flux density of each as a function of distance from the dipole, as well as, for the least, the fundamental relationship between the repelling force of the two magnets as a function of distance.
The thing is, I recall reading from somewhere that the decrease in force between two cylindrical magnets is as a function of cube. Is this accurate and if so, in what context so I know how to discuss it in my essay?
If u consider a normal bar magnet, then you can think of it as a dipole.. all i know is that if you go far away from that dipole.. then the field goes down as 1/r^3..
As the distance increases the magnetic field strength's function becomes from 1/r^2 closer to 1/r^3 and even further i suppose to 1/r^4? as for when the distance decreases the exponent approaches 0. This much I understand, the question is, to what extent does this proportionality apply to change in exponent of r as a function of distance where F = 1/r^n