anonymous
  • anonymous
Given that the gravitational force on a body is proportional to the body's mass, why doesnt a heavy body fall more rapidly than a light one?
Physics
  • Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
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SOLVED
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chestercat
  • chestercat
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anonymous
  • anonymous
It is always the same for all bodies
anonymous
  • anonymous
Expand please????
anonymous
  • anonymous
\[F=ma=G.mM/r ^{2}\rightarrow a=GM/r ^{2}\] which is a constant value for all falling bodies and doesn't depend on the mass

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anonymous
  • anonymous
Is it obvious?
anonymous
  • anonymous
So you are saying an object will fall at the same speed, because it doesnt depend on their mass?? What would happen if one 2 balls were thrown in the air, one up and one down (same wight, neglecting air resistance) which would land first??
anonymous
  • anonymous
You are mismatching some physical concepts such as Force, acceleration and even speed. when a body is falling at the vicinity of the Earth, he could feel a force acting on it with along with a constant acceleration g which is the same for all bodies. in the other words, the force exerting on a body would depend on only its mass(F=mg).on the other hand, the rate of change of speed (g) is the same for all falling bodies.
anonymous
  • anonymous
Okay, cheers, better sort that out!
anonymous
  • anonymous
i made this for you :D :D
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anonymous
  • anonymous
did u understand that ? :P.. did you like it :(
anonymous
  • anonymous
Hahahaha, thats hilarious and great, thanks :P
anonymous
  • anonymous
although what you said is right about the force being proportional to mass, you can think this way if you have big mass, you ll get big force, small mass gives small force.. but since f =ma, a would remain a constant.. !! (only near earth's surface though)..

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