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engr1988
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0I think it is 0 but am not sure

wio
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0Isn't it defined as the derivative of the Heaviside function?

satellite73
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.2i think the dirac delta function is zero everywhere except at 0 so yes, the integral will be zero

satellite73
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.2if i am not mistaken the integral \[\int _{\infty}^{\infty}\delta=1\]

satellite73
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.2some weird real tall function at \(x=0\) and \(0\) otherwise

satellite73
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.2yw, but i would not take my word for it maybe google

engr1988
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0I am sure now. I re read my notes and found it there too.

goformit100
 one year ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0"Welcome to OpenStudy. I can guide regarding this useful site; ask your doubts from me, for it you can message me. Please use the chat for off topic questions. And remember to give the helper a medal, by clicking on "Best Answer". We follow a code of conduct, ( http://openstudy.com/codeofconduct ). Please take a moment to read it."
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