anonymous
  • anonymous
I have a more general question, will 1/sin(x) ever be written as sin^(-1)(x)? Or any trig question for that matter. I had a problem with this in an assignment and it took a long time to figure out that they meant arcsin(x) so the notation is confusing me.
Mathematics
  • Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
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SOLVED
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katieb
  • katieb
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DDCamp
  • DDCamp
No, because: \[\frac{ 1 }{ \sin(x) }\neq \sin^{-1} (x)\]
anonymous
  • anonymous
This is simply a matter of convention in how we use the notation.\[\sin ^2 x=(\sin x)^2\] and\[\sin ^5x=(\sin x)^5\]but\[\sin ^{-1}x \neq(\sin x)^{-1}\]because this notation is reserved for use as an alternative way of writing arcsin x.
anonymous
  • anonymous
Ok thank you, hopefully my mind won't jump to 1/sin(x) now when I see that lol.

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