anonymous
  • anonymous
If the limit of f(x) as x approaches 2 is 4, can you conclude anything about f(2)? Explain your reasoning.
Mathematics
  • Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
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SOLVED
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jamiebookeater
  • jamiebookeater
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anonymous
  • anonymous
Here's an example: \[f(x)=\begin{cases}2x&\text{for }x\not=2\\1&\text{for }x=2\end{cases}\] |dw:1378857871089:dw|
anonymous
  • anonymous
so i can conclude that there is a hole? that is what i originally thought, but i wanted to double check
anonymous
  • anonymous
Not necessarily. If you were given \(f(x)=2x\) for all \(x\), then the limit as \(x\to2\) is 4 and \(f(2)=4\). For the example I gave, though, the limit exists, but \(f(2)\) need not be equal to 4.

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anonymous
  • anonymous
alrighty thanks :)

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