• anonymous
Why doesn't magnetic field strength decrease as a function of x in B = 1/x^2? For that matter, it does not decrease as a function of 1/x^n in any case where n would be a constant - n must be a variable! Can someone explain this to me? It does not correspond to inverse square law.. Thx!
  • Stacey Warren - Expert
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  • katieb
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  • anonymous
For a long thin solenoid that approximates a magnetic dipole (or a theoretical magnetic dipole) the field varies as 1/x^3 with a cosine (angle between x and dipole axis) dependence. Since all real magnets have extended crossectional areas and correspondingly shorter lengths they cannot be represented as a true dipole and therefore the x dependence is more complex.

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