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samigupta8

  • 2 years ago

find the magnitude of average accleration of the tip of second hand of length 10 cm during 10 seconds....

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  1. Abhishek619
    • 2 years ago
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    there are some assumptions which you should make is that, the seconds have move with constant angular velocity 'w' time period is 2pi/w=60. w=2pi/60 10 secs means it travels 1/6th part of the clock.|dw:1382102831264:dw| it goes from A to B. change in velocity and solve like the previous case how we did it. and then that divide by the total time taken=10secs. do this and you'll get the ans.

  2. ParthKohli
    • 2 years ago
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    Radial acceleration is \(R\omega^2\) assuming constant angular velocity. The angular velocity is \(\dfrac{2\pi}{60} \rm rad s^{-1}\)

  3. samigupta8
    • 2 years ago
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    @AllTehMaffs pls..hlp me in this question

  4. Mashy
    • 2 years ago
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    ahhww.. i dunno how to even begin.. average acceleration shoudl be zero cause before 10 seconds and after 10 seconds, the second hand comes to stop :-/

  5. Mashy
    • 2 years ago
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    oh wait.. are you talking about centripetal acceleration!?

  6. Mashy
    • 2 years ago
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    then what parth says is right

  7. samigupta8
    • 2 years ago
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    if it's right then how we r going to calculate acceleration

  8. samigupta8
    • 2 years ago
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    i m convinced with this that linear velocity is cuming as pi/300 m/sec

  9. Mashy
    • 2 years ago
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    then u know what is the relation between linear vel and centripetal acceleration

  10. samigupta8
    • 2 years ago
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    it is v^2/r

  11. Mashy
    • 2 years ago
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    there you ahve it.. plug it in!

  12. samigupta8
    • 2 years ago
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    it's cuming as pi^2/90

  13. samigupta8
    • 2 years ago
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    no no sory i made a mistake lemme solve it

  14. samigupta8
    • 2 years ago
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    it's pi^2/9000

  15. Mashy
    • 2 years ago
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    yea.. thats right..

  16. Mashy
    • 2 years ago
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    u knw u can solve this simply.. 60 seconds --- 2 pi rads 1 second -- pi/30 rads so a = w^2 r = (pi^2/900)*0.1

  17. samigupta8
    • 2 years ago
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    bt the answer is given as pi/3000 m/s^2

  18. samigupta8
    • 2 years ago
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    here have they taken the value of one pi as 3 and then solve it

  19. samigupta8
    • 2 years ago
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    if dey hve done like this then it wud give the same answer to our question also am i ryt....?

  20. Vincent-Lyon.Fr
    • 2 years ago
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    The answer is π²/9000

  21. samigupta8
    • 2 years ago
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    ryt my answer is also that only

  22. Vincent-Lyon.Fr
    • 2 years ago
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    That's also the answer Mashy gave you.

  23. Abhishek619
    • 2 years ago
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    the answer given is correct. it's pi/3000 m/s^2. at least this is what i'm getting.

  24. samigupta8
    • 2 years ago
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    how r u getting this answer cuz i m getting it as pi^2/9000

  25. Vincent-Lyon.Fr
    • 2 years ago
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    Hi @samigupta8, I am so sorry, but @Mashy and myself have led you to a wrong solution to your problem. Actually, @Abhishek619 gave you the right answer at the very beginning. As the problem asks for AVERAGE acceleration from position 1 to position 2, as acceleration is a vector, the right answer is: \(\vec a_{average} = \Large \frac {\vec v_2-\vec v_1}{t_2-t_1}\) with \(\Delta t = t_2-t_1\)=10 s and \(\vec v_1\) and \(\vec v_2\) as drawn in Abhishek619's sketch. |dw:1382428975483:dw| Hence \(\vec v_2-\vec v_1\) has the same magnitude v as v1 and v2 because all angles are π/3 the magnitude of the average acceleration is a = v/\(\Delta t\) Since v = 2πr/60s = 2π x 0.1 /60 = π / 300 m/s and \(\Delta t\) = 10 s then average acceleration is a = π / 3000 m/s²

  26. Mashy
    • 2 years ago
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    drats.. thanks a lot for that update man!!

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