• amonoconnor
When using the Chain Rule, and taking the second piece of derivative (dy/dx of the term for "theta"), would this be correct... (?) In my particular situation: The "theta" = (1/y) So... Because it's not the first step in the chain rule, and I'm "re-deriving" as my math teacher says, the constant (1) is affectable. So... Is the following derivation correct? 1/y = (0)/[y^(1-1)(dy/dx)] = 0/y^(0)(dy/dx) = 0/(1)(dy/dx) = 0/(dy/dx) = (0)
Calculus1
• Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
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SOLVED
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