When using the Chain Rule, and taking the second piece of derivative (dy/dx of the term for "theta"), would this be correct... (?)
In my particular situation:
The "theta" = (1/y)
So... Because it's not the first step in the chain rule, and I'm "re-deriving" as my math teacher says, the constant (1) is affectable. So... Is the following derivation correct?
1/y = (0)/[y^(1-1)(dy/dx)] = 0/y^(0)(dy/dx) = 0/(1)(dy/dx) = 0/(dy/dx) = (0)

Hey! We 've verified this expert answer for you, click below to unlock the details :)

I got my questions answered at brainly.com in under 10 minutes. Go to brainly.com now for free help!

@agent0smith
Yes... I know. I'm a thorn in your side ;)

"theta" = (1/y) ?? I don't understand :(

Looking for something else?

Not the answer you are looking for? Search for more explanations.

## More answers

Looking for something else?

Not the answer you are looking for? Search for more explanations.