Ace school

with brainly

  • Get help from millions of students
  • Learn from experts with step-by-step explanations
  • Level-up by helping others

A community for students.

LIMIT! using L'Hopital's rules, evaluate lim x appraoches infinity (cos(x/2))^x^2

Mathematics
I got my questions answered at brainly.com in under 10 minutes. Go to brainly.com now for free help!
At vero eos et accusamus et iusto odio dignissimos ducimus qui blanditiis praesentium voluptatum deleniti atque corrupti quos dolores et quas molestias excepturi sint occaecati cupiditate non provident, similique sunt in culpa qui officia deserunt mollitia animi, id est laborum et dolorum fuga. Et harum quidem rerum facilis est et expedita distinctio. Nam libero tempore, cum soluta nobis est eligendi optio cumque nihil impedit quo minus id quod maxime placeat facere possimus, omnis voluptas assumenda est, omnis dolor repellendus. Itaque earum rerum hic tenetur a sapiente delectus, ut aut reiciendis voluptatibus maiores alias consequatur aut perferendis doloribus asperiores repellat.

Get this expert

answer on brainly

SEE EXPERT ANSWER

Get your free account and access expert answers to this and thousands of other questions

Do you know you can write y as e^ln(y) let me know if that helps brb
so what I'm say is you can write \[(\cos(x/2))^{x^2}=e^{\ln((\cos(x/2))^{x^2})}=e^{x^2 \ln(\cos(x/2))}=e^{\frac{\ln(\cos(x/2))}{\frac{1}{x^2}}}\]
i think i forgot about it

Not the answer you are looking for?

Search for more explanations.

Ask your own question

Other answers:

now you did to find this limit \[\lim_{x \rightarrow \infty}\frac{\ln(\cos(x/2))}{\frac{1}{x^2}}\]
wow, seems it is so complicated.
so, we can just take the value of power of exponential? what say you?
Instead of writing \[x^2 \ln(\cos(x/2)) \text{ as } \frac{\ln(\cos(x/2))}{\frac{1}{x^2}} \text{ it might be more preferable } \\ \text{ if we write is as } \frac{x^2}{\frac{1}{\ln(\cos(x/2))}}\] still don't know if we should use l'hospital even though it says and that is why I attempted to set the problem up in this way the reason I say that is because the limit as x approaches inf of ln(cos(x/2)) dne since lim x approaches inf of cos(x/2) does not exist since it will oscillate between -1 and 1 but pretending we can use l'hospital since it say use l'hospital i guess we will force the l'hospital
@zepdrix the reason i ask is because i only see it used for cases like inf/inf or 0/0
not 0/dne or dne/inf
Oh boy D: Good question.. hmm So we have a problem since ln(cosx) is undefined over and over as x->infinity, yah?
yah
Grr I dunno >.< maybe lego man knows
maybe sith knows i seen him around a lot doing math like it is nothing
Wolfram seems to agree; the limit doesn't exist. That's my guess
LHops international house of limits
Not only does wolfram not say anything, but Mathematica comes up blank as well.
Does that mean Mathematica doesn't have the programming to find the limit or that the limit does not exist?
i believe the limit does not exist and i also believe we don't need l'hopital (even though it says to use it)
I think it only tells you that mathematica doesn't have the programming.
Hmm... power series? With WA, adding more terms to the cosine series makes the limit alternate between infinity and complex infinity... Not sure what that tells us.
Can it converge if it is only intermittently continuous? This is not some countably infinite number of discontinuities (where some Lebesgue measure might provide consistent results). In the logarithm form, there are giant gaps. This is really why introducing the logarithm is a bad idea. It massively modifies the Domain. If you can tell me there is a big number, M, where \(cos(x/2) > 0\;for\;x > M\), then the logarithm is of no concern. There is no such number M.
This limit can't possibly exist. Since cosine regularly alternates between \(\pm1\), no matter what value of \(x\) we're currently looking at, we can get a larger value such that \(\cos(x/2)\) is 1. Powers have no effect on this, and so you can always get a larger value such that the function outputs 1. But you can also get a larger value whose output will give you 0. So there can't possibly be a limit.
Sequence: \((\cos(4n\pi))^{n^2}\;for\; n\in\mathbb{N}\) It's just ones (1s).
I believe the question is not properly phrase. As x tends infinity, cos(x/2) and sin(x/2) is not defined.

Not the answer you are looking for?

Search for more explanations.

Ask your own question