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NermeenC

  • one year ago

show that the linearization of sin(x) at 0= the linearization of tan(x) at 0

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  1. alexkatko11
    • one year ago
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    Linearization of sin(x) at x=0: L= f(0)-f'(0)*(x-0) L= 0 - cos(0*)x *the derivative of sin is cos L= -x Linearization of tan(x) at x=0 L= f(0)-f'(0)*x L=0-f'(sec^2(0))*x *the derivative of tan is sec^2 L=-x

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