anonymous
  • anonymous
FAN AND MEDAL
Mathematics
  • Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
Hey! We 've verified this expert answer for you, click below to unlock the details :)
SOLVED
At vero eos et accusamus et iusto odio dignissimos ducimus qui blanditiis praesentium voluptatum deleniti atque corrupti quos dolores et quas molestias excepturi sint occaecati cupiditate non provident, similique sunt in culpa qui officia deserunt mollitia animi, id est laborum et dolorum fuga. Et harum quidem rerum facilis est et expedita distinctio. Nam libero tempore, cum soluta nobis est eligendi optio cumque nihil impedit quo minus id quod maxime placeat facere possimus, omnis voluptas assumenda est, omnis dolor repellendus. Itaque earum rerum hic tenetur a sapiente delectus, ut aut reiciendis voluptatibus maiores alias consequatur aut perferendis doloribus asperiores repellat.
chestercat
  • chestercat
I got my questions answered at brainly.com in under 10 minutes. Go to brainly.com now for free help!
anonymous
  • anonymous
Sherwin throws a dart at this square-shaped target: Part A: Is the probability of hitting the black circle inside the target closer to 0 or 1? Why? Part B: Is the probability of hitting the white portion of the target closer to 0 or 1? Why?
anonymous
  • anonymous
we need more
sweetburger
  • sweetburger
found the related picture online http://gyazo.com/bc22b4046e9fe6d9616d8ca7a02df86c

Looking for something else?

Not the answer you are looking for? Search for more explanations.

More answers

anonymous
  • anonymous
|dw:1433864652697:dw|
anonymous
  • anonymous
more of the white i dont know how to explain it
anonymous
  • anonymous
i think
sweetburger
  • sweetburger
so the area of the circle and the area of the square must be found. The diameter of the circle is 4 so to find the area we will do A=pir^2 which is A=pi(2)^2 so A=4pi now we have to take the area of the square which is 22^2= 484 so the probability is 4pi/484
sweetburger
  • sweetburger
4pi/484 comes out to .026 which is far closer to 0 than it is to 1
sweetburger
  • sweetburger
Now for the second part
sweetburger
  • sweetburger
The probability of hitting the white part is 484-4pi/484 =
sweetburger
  • sweetburger
this is equivalent to .97 which is far closer to 1 than it is to 0.
sweetburger
  • sweetburger
So the probability of hitting the black part is close to 0 and the probability of hitting the white part is close to 1.
anonymous
  • anonymous
thanks so much

Looking for something else?

Not the answer you are looking for? Search for more explanations.