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Sherwin throws a dart at this square-shaped target:
Part A: Is the probability of hitting the black circle inside the target closer to 0 or 1?
Part B: Is the probability of hitting the white portion of the target closer to 0 or 1? Why?
we need more
found the related picture online http://gyazo.com/bc22b4046e9fe6d9616d8ca7a02df86c
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more of the white i dont know how to explain it
so the area of the circle and the area of the square must be found. The diameter of the circle is 4 so to find the area we will do A=pir^2 which is A=pi(2)^2 so A=4pi now we have to take the area of the square which is 22^2= 484 so the probability is 4pi/484
4pi/484 comes out to .026 which is far closer to 0 than it is to 1
Now for the second part
The probability of hitting the white part is 484-4pi/484 =
this is equivalent to .97 which is far closer to 1 than it is to 0.
So the probability of hitting the black part is close to 0 and the probability of hitting the white part is close to 1.