anonymous
  • anonymous
Let f(x,y) = 6(1-y) where 0 < x < y < 1 be a possible joint distribution. Demonstrate that this is a viable distribution (show your work) The 0 < x < y < 1 is throwing me off. What domains should I be using when integrating with respect to x and with respect to y?
Mathematics
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anonymous
  • anonymous
Let f(x,y) = 6(1-y) where 0 < x < y < 1 be a possible joint distribution. Demonstrate that this is a viable distribution (show your work) The 0 < x < y < 1 is throwing me off. What domains should I be using when integrating with respect to x and with respect to y?
Mathematics
chestercat
  • chestercat
I got my questions answered at brainly.com in under 10 minutes. Go to brainly.com now for free help!
At vero eos et accusamus et iusto odio dignissimos ducimus qui blanditiis praesentium voluptatum deleniti atque corrupti quos dolores et quas molestias excepturi sint occaecati cupiditate non provident, similique sunt in culpa qui officia deserunt mollitia animi, id est laborum et dolorum fuga. Et harum quidem rerum facilis est et expedita distinctio. Nam libero tempore, cum soluta nobis est eligendi optio cumque nihil impedit quo minus id quod maxime placeat facere possimus, omnis voluptas assumenda est, omnis dolor repellendus. Itaque earum rerum hic tenetur a sapiente delectus, ut aut reiciendis voluptatibus maiores alias consequatur aut perferendis doloribus asperiores repellat.

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anonymous
  • anonymous
I've tried 0 to y for x and x to 1 for y, but I am unsure of this answer. To prove a viable distribution, I need to show that the volume of f(x,y) with respect to x and y is equal to one. I need a definite integral to equal 1.
IrishBoy123
  • IrishBoy123
the volume of f(x,y) with respect to x and y is the double integral of f(x,y). and your f(x,y) is the plane \(0x + 6y +z = 6\) your limit \(0
IrishBoy123
  • IrishBoy123
notice the order of integration.

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anonymous
  • anonymous
Wow. You are the best. I've integrated and received the correct answer of 1. I'm ecstatic. Thanks!

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